Syd and Mental Illness

[Basser101]

I have hesitated to post this, because I know everyone has their theories, and why is one any better than another. But, here goes:

Over the years, I have read quite a bit about psychology and artistic creativity, and also about how each are affected by psychedelic drugs. Despite what you might read on the internet, there is not a whole lot of research on the affects of LSD on the brain, as in the West that research has been limited by governments since it was made illegal in the mid to late 60s. What is known is that it speeds communication between the various parts of the brain while dampening activity in the prefrontal cortex, which controls decision-making and social interaction.

Some other research has shown that there is a connection between artistic creativity and mind bipolar disorder, but not more pronounced bipolar disorder. Another interesting aspect of bipolar disorder is that those with it are more prone than the general population to excessively use LSD and some other types of drugs once introduced to them. Likely this is a self-medicating phenomenon, intentionally or unintentionally seeking to control the mood swings. Bipolar is also associated with insomnia at an earlier age than typically seen without it.

All this is to say, IMHO, I think it is very possible that Syd was mildly bipolar, as possibly were the others deemed “acid casualties” like Peter Green and Brian Wilson, and that bipolar and heavy LSD use could be a particularly bad combination.

Besides the general info above, look at Barrett’s life itself. He never exhibited any indications of schizophrenia prior to the breakdown in mid-67. One of the key indicators of schizophrenia is auditory hallucinations, and I am unaware of any accounts suggesting that he had those. The account from the head of Greenwoods mentions his drug use and nothing about schizophrenia. The writing in Barrett’s psychology book mentions manic depression. Also important to note that one diagnosis mentioned for both Barrett and Wilson — at the heights of their issues — was schizoid disorder- bipolar, which not schizophrenia. It’s bipolar with schizophrenia symptoms. That might not seem like much of a distinction, but it is. It is essentially implying underlying bipolar with something else creating the schizophrenia symptoms. Could it be the abuse of a drug known to dampen the part of the brain regulating decision-making functions and the ability to engage in social interaction?

[Basser101]

That should be “mild bipolar” in the 3rd paragraph